Q&A – Page 78 – Church of the Eternal God

Please explain Christ's words in Matthew 24:34, saying that "this generation" would not pass away until "all these things" have taken place.

August 15, 2008

Actually, Christ’s words, as quoted above in the book of Matthew, are also recorded in Mark 13:30 and in Luke 21:32. Christ had been asked privately by four of His disciples (Mark 13:3) “… when will these things be? And what will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age?” (Matthew 24:3). Christ proceeded to describe events which would take place, leading to His Second Coming and to the end of THIS age and the beginning of the Millennium–the NEW age of the wonderful world tomorrow.

He warned against ever-increasing religious deception, wars, famines, pestilences and earthquakes (Matthew 24:4-7); as well as religious and national persecution of spiritual and physical “Israel,” which persecution is also referred to as the Great Tribulation (Matthew 24:9, 15-28; Mark 13:9, 11-23; Luke 21:12-24). He stated that the Great Tribulation will be followed by heavenly signs or cosmic disturbances (Matthew 24:29; Mark 13:24; Luke 21:25-26), which will finally lead to His return in great power and great glory (Matthew 24:30-31; Mark 13:26-27: Luke 21:27-28).

Would you please explain Hebrews 10:25. Why does Paul warn against "forsaking the assembling of ourselves together"?

August 8, 2008

Hebrews 10:24-26 reads, in context:

“And let us consider one another in order to stir up love and good works, not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as is the manner of some, but exhorting one another, and so much the more as you see the Day approaching. For if we sin willfully, after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins.”

We can clearly see from this passage that Paul warns us not to forsake the “assembling of ourselves together,” as the consequence of doing so could lead to our committing the unpardonable sin.

What is meant by, “assembling of ourselves together”?

Note the following renderings, which make the intended meaning clearer:

The Berkely Version of the New Testament says: “… not neglecting our own church meeting.”

Since God has already qualified His people to be in His kingdom, isn't their salvation a fait accompli?

August 1, 2008

It most certainly is not, even though some within orthodox Christianity teach this false idea. The biblical teaching, however, is altogether different.

It is true that God WANTS those to be in His Kingdom whom He calls to salvation. And as we explain in our booklet, “Are You Predestined to Be Saved?”, God is confident that His disciples WILL “make it” into His kingdom (compare Philippians 1:6). He knows that all those whom He has called now CAN make it. We even read that God has already “glorified” them (Romans 8:30), even though their glorification is still in the future. God is so confident that they will be glorified that He speaks of that future event as something which has already occurred (compare Romans 4:17).

Paul tells us in Colossians 1:12 that “the Father… has qualified us to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in the light.” The Authorized Version states that He has “made us meet,” which actually means, that He has made us “fit” or “sufficient” or “able” or “worthy.” Paul says in 2 Corinthians 3:5-6 that God made him and others “sufficient as ministers of the new covenant.”

Why did Jesus refuse to confirm the Old Testament law to stone the woman caught in adultery?

July 25, 2008

The particular passage in question is found in John 8:3-11. It reads, in context (emphasis added):

“Then the scribes and Pharisees brought to Him a woman caught in adultery. And when they had set her in the midst, they said to Him, ‘Teacher, this woman was caught in adultery, IN THE VERY ACT. Now Moses, in the law, commanded us that such should be stoned. But what do You say?’ This they said, TESTING HIM, THAT THEY MIGHT HAVE SOMETHING OF WHICH TO ACCUSE HIM. But Jesus stooped down and wrote on the ground with His finger, as though He did not hear. So when they continued asking Him, He raised Himself up and said to them, ‘He who is without sin among you, let him throw a stone at her first’ [better: ‘let Him throw THE first stone’]. And again He stooped down and wrote on the ground. Then those who heard it, BEING CONVICTED BY THEIR CONSCIENCE, went out one by one, beginning with the oldest even to the last. And Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst. When Jesus had raised Himself up and saw no one but the woman, He said to her, ‘Woman, where are those accusers of yours? Has no one condemned you?’ She said, ‘No one, Lord.’ And Jesus said to her, ‘Neither do I condemn you; go and sin no more.'”

Why did Jesus ask John just prior to His death to take care of His mother Mary?

July 18, 2008

Some have concluded that Jesus was Mary’s only child, and that He therefore asked John to take care of His mother after His death, as there was nobody else in His immediate family who could have done so. However, this is not what the Bible teaches.

We read in John 19:25-27:

“Now there stood by the cross of Jesus His mother… When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, ‘Woman, behold your son!’ Then He said to the disciple, ‘Behold your mother!’ And from that hour that disciple took her to his own home.”

Almost every biblical scholar agrees that the “disciple whom Christ loved” was the disciple John (Compare for additional references, John 13:23; 20:2; 21:7). Especially in John 21, John identifies himself as the “disciple whom Jesus loved” (compare verses 20-24).

Did Jesus violate His own words, when He first said to His disciples before His crucifixion that He would drink no more wine, and when He later drank wine before His death?

July 11, 2008

Actually, this question has puzzled quite a few people. It is important to read all the relevant passages in context.

We read in Matthew 26:27-29 that Jesus gave wine to the disciples, symbolizing His shed blood for the forgiveness of sins. The entire passage reads (Authorized Version throughout, unless otherwise mentioned):

“And He took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the new testament [covenant], which is shed for many for the remission of sins. But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.”

In the parallel passage in Mark 14:25, He is quoted as saying: “Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God.” Compare, too, the wording in Luke 22:18.

Can you explain what is meant by the word "glorification"? In what way will we be glorified–and in what way was Jesus glorified?

July 4, 2008

We read in Romans 8:29-30 that God will glorify those whom He has called in this day and age. It is explained in verse 29 that He predestined those whom He foreknew “to be conformed to the image of His Son.” Even though the Scripture says, in verse 30, that He already “glorified” them, this is still a future event, but it is absolutely certain to occur.

John Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible explains that “they are already glorified in Christ, their head and representative… It is an observation of a Jewish writer… that a thing ‘which is decreed to be’, is spoken of in the past tense: ‘this is the Scripture style concerning things decreed, and such is the glorification of all God’s elect.'”

As Christ was glorified, so His true disciples will be glorified. We read about Christ’s glorious appearance in Revelation 1:14-16: “His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and His eyes like a flame of fire… and His countenance was like the sun shining in its strength.” His glorified state is also described in Revelation 2:18: “These things says the Son of God, who has eyes like a flame of fire…” Christ was a glorified God being before He became a man, and He was anticipating the time, just prior to His death, when He would be glorified once again. He prayed to the Father in John 17, stating in verse 5: “And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself [literally: alongside Yourself], with the glory which I had with You before the world was.”

Would you please explain the meaning of the different dates and numbers mentioned in the book of Daniel, i.e., 2,300 evenings and mornings, 1,260 days, 1,290 days and 1,335 days?

June 27, 2008

Before attempting to address those numbers, we need to understand–as we pointed out in detail in previous Q&As–that we do not know the exact day of Christ’s return. Matthew 24:44 reads: “Therefore you also be ready, for the Son of Man is coming at an hour you do not expect.” In Mark 13:32-33, we read Christ’s words: “But of that DAY and hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. Take heed, watch and pray; for you do not know when the time is.” Neither Christ, nor God’s angels, nor we “know” [present tense!] the DAY and the HOUR of His coming. Christ seems to be saying that we won’t know the exact time — a phrase broader than just a 24-hour-day. The reason for this conclusion is given in Acts 1:6-7:

Do you believe that the "Virgin Mary" has appeared to children and others with messages from God?

June 20, 2008

We don’t believe that Mary, the mother of Jesus Christ, appeared to anyone after she had died in the first century. Mary is dead and buried, sleeping the sleep of death in her grave, and awaiting her resurrection to eternal life at the time of Christ’s return. The Bible makes it very clear that all who died in Christ will be resurrected when Christ comes back to this earth–not before then (compare 1 Corinthians 15:22-23, 50-52; 1 Thessalonians 4:16-17). As we explain in our free booklet, “Do We Have an Immortal Soul?”, those who die sleep a dreamless sleep of death, without any knowledge, activity, consciousness or thought. For this reason alone, Mary could not have really appeared to anyone after she had died.

Some believe that Mary appeared in a vision. For proof, they point to the occasion of the “transfiguration on the mount” (Matthew 17:1-9), when three of Christ’s disciples, Peter, James and John, saw Jesus Christ in a vision (verse 9) talking to Moses and Elijah, who had died. In that vision, the disciples were given a glimpse of how it would be like in the Kingdom of God, which will be established on this earth after Christ’s return. Jesus had told those disciples that they would not die until they had seen the Kingdom of God having come with power (compare Matthew 16:28; Mark 9:1). They did see it–in a vision (For more information on this vision, please read our free booklet, “The Gospel of the Kingdom of God.”).

Would you please explain the "image of the beast," as described in Revelation 13:14?

June 13, 2008

In the thirteenth chapter of the book of Revelation, John sees two “beasts.” These are symbolic descriptions of powerful world empires.

Beginning with Revelation 13:1, John sees in a vision a fantastic beast rising out of the sea, which has seven heads and ten horns. This beast received a deadly wound, but was healed. We explained in previous Q&A’s and some of our booklets, that this beast describes the Roman Empire at the time of John, its subsequent fall and its ten revivals or resurrections throughout history until the time of Christ’s return. The last and tenth resurrection is unfolding in Europe right now before our very eyes. (For more information, please read, for example, our free booklet, “Europe in Prophecy.”)

Beginning with Revelation 13:11, John sees in vision a second beast coming up out of the earth. This second beast had two horns. It looked like a lamb (Jesus Christ is referred to as the Lamb of God throughout the New Testament, compare John 1:29), but it spoke like a dragon (Satan is identified as a dragon in Revelation 12:3, 9). This second beast is obviously a religious power, which is influenced by Satan, while pretending to speak on behalf of Christ.